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Where does this happen? I was under the impression that low income housing was owned by the state, or maybe someone else but under strict control by the state, and you had to fall under a certain income to rent there, not purchase.
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Okay, do now we’re back to my original point:
Im sure they also thought the lack of poor people owning houses was “easily solved” by banning landlords.
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Yes, again, because they didn’t do anything about rich people taking advantage of it. I’m not sure why you’re suggesting that “don’t let rich people have the homes” would still make it impossible to house the poor.
