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Im sure they also thought the lack of poor people owning houses was “easily solved” by banning landlords.
But how does pegging the unit ownership to income even work?
-1 points
Very simply- you have to be under a certain income threshold to qualify for these homes. The same way it’s done for lower-income housing everywhere else.
1 point
Where does this happen? I was under the impression that low income housing was owned by the state, or maybe someone else but under strict control by the state, and you had to fall under a certain income to rent there, not purchase.
