Do you have a source on your claim? Why do you say this when it’s completely false? You are spreading misinformation.
Source:
34 “How will this be,” Mary asked the angel, “since I am a virgin?”
Parthenos Definition
NAS Word Usage - Total: 15
a virgin
a marriageable maiden
a woman who has never had sexual intercourse with a man
one's marriageable daughter
a man who has abstained from all uncleanness and whoredom attendant on idolatry, and so has kept his chastity
one who has never had intercourse with women
I can’t reason you out of your faith. That’s not how faith works.
No matter what evidence I provide it won’t be enough to counter your faith in the written word of god.
What I will say is that modern English has been around for a few hundred years. When was the old new testament written down and in what language? About two thousand years ago in Hebrew Aramaic. English word definitions are irrelevant.
Peace be with you.
Edits: inline.
Edit: damn it, I will argue.
The gospels of Matthew and Luke describe Mary as a virgin.
From the Greek: παρθένος; Matthew 1:23 uses the Greek parthénos, “virgin”, whereas only the Hebrew of Isaiah 7:14, from which the New Testament ostensibly quotes, as Almah – “young maiden”. See article on parthénos in Bauercc/(Arndt)/Gingrich/Danker, A Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament and Other Early Christian Literature (Bauercc/(Arndt)/Gingrich/Danker, A Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament and Other Early Christian Literature, 2nd ed., University of Chicago Press, 1979, p. 627.).
“Young maiden” here indicates youth and un-married.
Different translations of Luke also use “handmaiden of God” to describe Mary as a servant of God.
