Another possibility is that she’s XY, but the Y never activated, so she developed female but with a single “faulty” X chromosome.
I don’t remember my biology classes well enough to say, but wouldn’t that also mean that potentially neither of her parents were colorblind, since the Y would’ve come from her father while the faulty X would’ve come from her mother? And, if she were XY in this scenario, wouldn’t that mean that she’d pass that trait along to her kids as well?
if she were XY in this scenario, wouldn’t that mean that she’d pass that trait along to her kids as well?
I could be wrong, but I don’t believe XY females (Swyer syndrome) produce eggs and thus cannot bear their own children.
But a colorblind XX woman who can bear children would give birth to colorblind sons and, if the father of the child is also colorblind, colorblind daughters.
There’s at least one case study where an XY female got pregnant and had children.
It runs in her family which is how they found out she’s XY, but generally they don’t do karyotype testing if there’s nothing obviously wrong, so there could be a lot of women who are XY and never find out.
